Continuing with FCFF of 295 growing at 2% in perpetuity, and the WACC of 9.6%:
Terminal value using the Gordon growth form, based on next year's cash flow:
TV = (295 × 1.02) ÷ (0.096 − 0.02) = 300.9 ÷ 0.076 = 3,959
Suppose the present value of the explicit forecast period is 1,200.
Enterprise value = 1,200 + present value of the terminal value. If the terminal value is five years out, discount it:
3,959 ÷ 1.096⁵ = 3,959 ÷ 1.5814 = 2,504
Enterprise value = 1,200 + 2,504 = 3,704
Notice that the terminal value contributes 2,504 of 3,704, which is 67.6% of the total. That is normal, and it is also the reason terminal value assumptions deserve more scrutiny than the detailed forecast years. State the proportion in your write-up: it shows you understand where the value actually comes from.
Perpetual growth must be below WACC. If g were set at 10% against a WACC of 9.6%, the denominator turns negative and the formula returns a meaningless answer. Growth above the long-run economy rate is not defensible either.